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48th BCS (Medical Part)

48th BCS (Medical Part)

বিগত সালের প্রশ্ন BCS 48th BCS (Medical Part)
প্রশ্ন 1 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Uterine contractions in labour-
A. are consciously controllable
B. are efficient at 5 mmHg
C. start at fundus of uterus
D. are painful due to ischemia
Explanation:
Normal labour contractions originate from a pacemaker near the fundus and spread downward (fundal dominance), so they start at the fundus of the uterus. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 2 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Component of Active management of third stage of labour (AMTSL) is-
A. Aortic compression
B. Inj. Oxytocin 10 units
C. Perineal message
D. Examination of cervix
Explanation:
AMTSL consists of prophylactic uterotonic (usually Inj. Oxytocin 10 units IM), controlled cord traction, and uterine massage after placental delivery. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 3 সঠিক উত্তর: C
The largerst tributaries that drain into inferior Vena Cava is-
A. Left renal Vein
B. Lumber Veins
C. Hepatic Veins
D. Right Renal Vein
Explanation:
The hepatic veins carry the entire venous drainage of the liver directly into the IVC and represent its largest tributaries by volume. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 4 সঠিক উত্তর: A
Genital fistula can be prevented by-
A. Improving essential obstetric care
B. Early operations of fibroid uterus
C. Treating PID cases
D. Correcting maternal anaemia
Explanation:
Most obstetric fistulas result from prolonged obstructed labour without timely intervention, so strengthening essential/emergency obstetric care is the key preventive measure. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 5 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Ideal graft for coronary artery bypass graft is-
A. Great saphenous vein
B. Ulner artery
C. Radial artery
D. Left internal mammary artery
Explanation:
The left internal mammary artery has the best long-term patency rate among bypass conduits and is considered the gold-standard graft for CABG. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 6 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Diabetes in pregnancy should be treated by-
A. Glipizide
B. Metformin
C. Insulin
D. Rosiglitazone
Explanation:
Insulin does not cross the placenta and offers the most reliable glycaemic control, making it the standard treatment for diabetes in pregnancy when medical therapy is needed. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 7 সঠিক উত্তর: A
Most common cause of Epistaxis is-
A. Idiopathic
B. Hypertension
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Coagulation disorder
Explanation:
In most clinical series, no definite cause is identified for the majority of epistaxis cases, so it is classified as idiopathic. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 8 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Feature of atropinization is-
A. Mild dialatd pupil
B. Tachycardia
C. Crepitaiton in Lungs
D. Bronchorrehoea
Explanation:
Atropine blocks vagal (parasympathetic) tone on the heart, producing tachycardia, along with pupil dilation and dry secretions. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 9 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Bony metastasis may occur in-
A. Carcinoma gall bladder
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Squamous Cell Carcinoma of skin
D. Follicular Carcinoma of thyroid
Explanation:
Follicular thyroid carcinoma has a strong propensity for haematogenous spread to bone, unlike the other listed tumours which more commonly metastasize elsewhere. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 10 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Part of Parasympathetic nervous system is-
A. Celiac ganglion
B. Cervical ganglion
C. Ciliary ganglion
D. Sacral ganglion
Explanation:
The ciliary ganglion is a parasympathetic ganglion supplying the eye (pupillary constriction and accommodation), whereas celiac and cervical ganglia are sympathetic. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 11 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Primary blood buffer system is-
A. Ammonia buffer
B. Bicarbonate buffer
C. Phosphate buffer
D. Protein buffer
Explanation:
The bicarbonate buffer system is the principal extracellular buffer of blood due to its high concentration and the ability of the lungs and kidneys to regulate its components. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 12 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is found in-
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Diabetic keto acidosis
C. Methanol poisoning
D. Renal tubular acidosis
Explanation:
Renal tubular acidosis causes bicarbonate loss with chloride retention, producing a hyperchloremic, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, unlike the other high anion gap causes listed. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 13 সঠিক উত্তর: A
Nerve responsible for sensation of smell is
A. Olfactory
B. Trigeminal
C. Facial
D. Oculomotor
Explanation:
The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) carries the special sensory fibres responsible for the sense of smell. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 14 সঠিক উত্তর: A
Plasma albumin helps in-
A. Colloidal osmotic pressure maintenance
B. Blood clotting
C. Iron transport
D. Copper transport
Explanation:
Albumin is the major plasma protein contributing to colloidal osmotic (oncotic) pressure, which keeps fluid within the vascular compartment. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 15 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Amniotic fluid embolism causes-
A. Hypertension
B. Bronchodilatation
C. Cyanosis
D. Sever anaemia
Explanation:
Amniotic fluid embolism causes acute pulmonary vascular obstruction and hypoxia, presenting classically with sudden dyspnoea, hypotension and cyanosis. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 16 সঠিক উত্তর: C
The most common type of anaemia in pregnancy is-
A. Thalassemia
B. Hereditary Spherocytosis
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Folic acid deficiency anaemia
Explanation:
Increased iron demand during pregnancy makes iron deficiency anaemia by far the most common type encountered. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 17 সঠিক উত্তর: A
The structural and functional unit of Lung is-
A. Alveoli
B. Bronchiole
C. Bronchus
D. Trachea
Explanation:
Gas exchange, the lung's principal function, occurs at the alveoli, making them the structural and functional unit of the lung. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 18 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Which of the following is a compressible swelling?
A. Neuro fibroma
B. Chondroma
C. Lymphoma
D. Haemangioma
Explanation:
A haemangioma is filled with blood that can be emptied by pressure and refills after release, giving it a classic compressible quality on examination. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 19 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Acid-Peptic disease include-
A. Inflammatory bowel disease
B. Irritable bowel syndrome
C. Non-ulcer dyspepsia
D. Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:
Acid-peptic disorders encompass conditions related to gastric acid and pepsin activity such as non-ulcer (functional) dyspepsia, unlike the other listed bowel conditions. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 20 সঠিক উত্তর: D
First step in blood coagulation is-
A. Activation of clotting factors
B. Clot retraction
C. Fibria mesh formation
D. Platelet aggregation
Explanation:
Following vessel injury, platelets adhere and aggregate at the site first, forming the primary platelet plug before the coagulation cascade proceeds. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 21 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Bone metabolism is the primary concern of
A. Glucagon
B. Growth hormone
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone directly regulates calcium and phosphate homeostasis by acting on bone, kidney and intestine, making it the principal hormone of bone metabolism. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 22 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Antigen test for COVID-19 is featured by
A. High accuracy
B. High sensitivity
C. High specificity
D. Low cost
Explanation:
Rapid antigen tests are valued mainly for being inexpensive and quick, though they have lower sensitivity than PCR testing. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 23 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Indication of hospitalization of a burn patient is
A. 5% burn in the trunk of an adult patient
B. 10% burn in the trunk of a child
C. Inhalation burn
D. 10% Circumferential burn in the lower limb
Explanation:
Suspected inhalation injury carries a high risk of airway compromise and is a standard indication for hospital admission regardless of total burn surface area. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 24 সঠিক উত্তর: C
A 45-year-old man has been suffering from cirrhosis of liver due to Hepatitis B Virus; the sign of decompression of cirrhosis is
A. Loss of hair
B. Splenomegaly
C. Ascites
D. Testicular atrophy
Explanation:
Ascites reflects portal hypertension and hepatic synthetic failure, and is a classic sign marking decompensation of chronic liver disease. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 25 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Protein is digested by
A. Amylase
B. Bile Salt
C. Lipase
D. Trypsin
Explanation:
Trypsin is a pancreatic protease that breaks down dietary protein into peptides and amino acids. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 26 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Megaloblastic anemia with peripheral neuropathy occur due to deficiency of
A. Folic acid
B. Iron
C. Pyridoxine
D. Vit B12
Explanation:
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia along with neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the cord, unlike isolated folate deficiency. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 27 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Scabies is characterized by
A. Comedon
B. Burrow
C. Silvery Scale
D. Wickman Striae
Explanation:
The pathognomonic lesion of scabies is the burrow created by the mite tunnelling in the epidermis. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 28 সঠিক উত্তর: B
The largest gland of human body is
A. Adrenal
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
Explanation:
The liver, functioning as an exocrine gland producing bile, is the largest gland in the human body. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 29 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Ethambutol is rarely prescribed in children because it causes
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Hepatitis
C. Rash
D. Retrobulbar neuritis
Explanation:
Ethambutol can cause optic (retrobulbar) neuritis, and because young children cannot reliably report visual symptoms, it is used cautiously in this age group. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 30 সঠিক উত্তর: A
The base of heart is formed mainly by
A. Left atrium
B. Left Ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right Ventricle
Explanation:
The base of the heart, situated posteriorly, is formed predominantly by the left atrium along with parts of the right atrium. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 31 সঠিক উত্তর: A
Multidrug resistant tuberculosis is treated by
A. Amikacin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tazobactum
D. Ethambutol
Explanation:
Amikacin is a second-line injectable agent used in the treatment regimen for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 32 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Ligature mark in typical hanging is
A. Completely encircling neck
B. Contineous
C. Obligue
D. Transverse
Explanation:
In typical hanging, the body's weight pulls the ligature upward toward the suspension point, producing a characteristic oblique, non-continuous mark highest opposite the knot. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 33 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Causes of painless Jaundice in surgical ward is
A. Cholelithiasis
B. Cholangitis
C. Mucocele of gall bladder
D. Peri-ampullary carcinoma
Explanation:
Peri-ampullary carcinoma classically presents with painless, progressive obstructive jaundice, distinguishing it from stone-related biliary disease which is usually painful. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 34 সঠিক উত্তর: D
The following layer of digestive tract contains nerves & vessels
A. Mucosa
B. Muscular Layer
C. Serous Layer
D. Submucosa
Explanation:
The submucosa contains the submucosal (Meissner's) nerve plexus along with blood vessels and lymphatics supplying the gut wall. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 35 সঠিক উত্তর: C
The antigen presenting cell on skin is
A. Basal cells
B. Keralinocytes
C. Langerhan cells
D. Melanocytes
Explanation:
Langerhans cells are dendritic antigen-presenting cells residing in the epidermis, forming part of the skin's immune surveillance system. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 36 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Utero-vaginal prolapse
A. is a very painful condition
B. is worse in erect posture
C. is common in nulliparous women
D. may resolve
Explanation:
Prolapse symptoms typically worsen with standing or straining due to increased downward pressure and improve when lying down, so it is characteristically worse in the erect posture. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 37 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Viral disease that may cause thrombocytopenia is
A. SARS-Cov-2
B. Influenza
C. Dengue
D. Hepatitis B
Explanation:
Dengue fever classically causes significant thrombocytopenia due to bone marrow suppression and increased platelet destruction/consumption. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 38 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Which of the following antidepressants does not have any weight gain property?
A. Escitalopram
B. Fluoxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Sertraline
Explanation:
Among SSRIs, fluoxetine is notable for being weight-neutral or even associated with mild weight loss, unlike paroxetine which is more linked to weight gain. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 39 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Most activity growing area of a long bone is
A. Diaphysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Epiphysial Cartilage
D. Metaphysis
Explanation:
Longitudinal bone growth occurs at the epiphyseal (growth) cartilage plate, making it the most actively growing region of a long bone. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 40 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Autoimmune disease includes
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Hypertension
C. Heart failure
D. Rheumatic fever
Explanation:
Rheumatic fever follows streptococcal infection and involves an autoimmune cross-reactive response against host tissues, unlike the other listed conditions. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 41 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Dose schedule of a drug with half life 03 hours will be
A. 3 hourly
B. 6 hourly
C. 12 hourly
D. Once daily
Explanation:
Dosing intervals are typically set at around one to two drug half-lives to maintain therapeutic levels; for a 3-hour half-life this corresponds to roughly 6-hourly dosing. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 42 সঠিক উত্তর: A
Clinical feature of minor surgical site infection is
A. Mild sero-sanguineous discharge
B. Copious purulent discharge
C. Fever
D. Formation of huge granulation tissue
Explanation:
A minor surgical site infection typically presents with only mild sero-sanguineous discharge, whereas copious pus and systemic fever suggest a more significant infection. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 43 সঠিক উত্তর: B
Clinical feature of raised intracranial pressure is
A. Raised respiratory rate
B. Bradycardia
C. Fever
D. Hypotension
Explanation:
Raised intracranial pressure classically produces Cushing's triad, which includes bradycardia along with hypertension and irregular respiration. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 44 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Cause of maternal death in Eclumpsia is
A. Retained Placenta
B. Ruptured Uterus
C. Cerebral hemorrhage
D. Septicemia
Explanation:
Cerebral haemorrhage secondary to severe hypertension and vasospasm is a leading cause of maternal mortality in eclampsia. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 45 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is stained by
A. Giemsa stain
B. Gram stain
C. Silver stain
D. Ziehl-Neelson stain
Explanation:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis has a waxy, acid-fast cell wall that is specifically demonstrated using the Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) staining technique. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 46 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Cephalosporin appropriate for renal impairment is
A. Cefazolin
B. Cefotetan
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefroxime
Explanation:
Ceftriaxone is excreted predominantly through biliary/hepatic pathways, so its dose generally does not require adjustment in renal impairment, unlike renally cleared cephalosporins. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 47 সঠিক উত্তর: C
Excess CO2 retention in blood leads to
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:
Retained CO2 combines with water to form carbonic acid, lowering blood pH and producing respiratory acidosis. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 48 সঠিক উত্তর: D
In Ectopic pregnancy
A. Bleeding precedes pain
B. Isthmus of fallopian tube in the commonest site of ectopic implantation
C. incidence is more common among women taking oral contraceptives for long time
D. Abdominal pain preceded by amenorrhoea
Explanation:
The classic presentation of ectopic pregnancy is a period of amenorrhoea followed by abdominal pain, reflecting the sequence of implantation, growth, and tubal irritation or rupture. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 49 সঠিক উত্তর: D
Co-administration of Phenobarbital & warfarin shows
A. Antiplatelet effect
B. Fibrinolytic effect
C. Increased bleeding tendency
D. Thromboembolic episode
Explanation:
Phenobarbital induces hepatic enzymes that accelerate warfarin metabolism, reducing its anticoagulant effect and increasing the risk of thromboembolic events, especially if phenobarbital is later withdrawn. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.
প্রশ্ন 50 সঠিক উত্তর: A
A 40-year-old man presented at Medicine OPD with recurrent haemoptysis for last 05 years; general examination revealed clubbing. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Interstitial Lung disease
C. Mitral Stenosis
D. Lung Cancer
Explanation:
Chronic recurrent haemoptysis over years with clubbing is a classic presentation of bronchiectasis, a suppurative chronic airway disease. Copyright © JobScholar. All rights reserved.